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CAT 2017 DILR Questions — Slot 1

The actual Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning section from CAT 2017, Slot 1 — 32 questions in original paper order, each with a full worked solution. Tap an option (or type your answer) to check yourself before reading the solution.

32 questions24 MCQ · 8 TITA60 min section0/32 attempted
Set · Networks & Routes

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute. The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

Q1Networks & RoutesTITA

How many cars would be asked to take the route A-N-B, that is Akala-Nanur-Bakala route, by the police department?

Show solution

Correct answer: 2

Finding the stable route assignment

We need to figure out how the police department splits 4 cars between the two routes A–M–B and A–N–B so that no single car can shorten its own travel time by switching routes while the others stay put.

Step 1: Write each road's travel-time formula

If nn cars use a road, the per-car time is:

RoadBase (1 car)Increment per extra carFormula
A–M (narrow)6 min+3 min6+3(n−1)=3n+36 + 3(n-1) = 3n+3
N–B (narrow)6 min+3 min6+3(n−1)=3n+36 + 3(n-1) = 3n+3
A–N20 min+1 min20+1(n−1)=n+1920 + 1(n-1) = n+19
M–B20 min+0.9 min20+0.9(n−1)=0.9n+19.120 + 0.9(n-1) = 0.9n+19.1

Step 2: Write each route's total time

Let mm cars take A–M–B and nn cars take A–N–B, with m+n=4m + n = 4.

  • A–M–B time =(3m+3)+(0.9m+19.1)=3.9m+22.1= (3m+3) + (0.9m+19.1) = 3.9m + 22.1
  • A–N–B time =(n+19)+(3n+3)=4n+22= (n+19) + (3n+3) = 4n + 22

Since n=4−mn = 4 - m, we can rewrite the A–N–B time as: 4(4−m)+22=38−4m4(4-m) + 22 = 38 - 4m

Step 3: Find the balance point

The stable assignment sits near where the two route times are equal — if one route were much faster, cars on the slower route would switch.

3.9m+22.1=38−4m3.9m + 22.1 = 38 - 4m 7.9m=15.97.9m = 15.9 m≈2.01m \approx 2.01

This points to m=2m = 2, so n=2n = 2.

Step 4: Verify stability

With m=2,  n=2m = 2,\; n = 2:

RouteCarsTime
A–M–B23.9(2)+22.1=29.93.9(2)+22.1 = 29.9 min
A–N–B24(2)+22=304(2)+22 = 30 min
  • A car on A–N–B (30 min) switching to A–M–B would make it 3 cars there: 3.9(3)+22.1=33.83.9(3)+22.1 = 33.8 min — worse.
  • A car on A–M–B (29.9 min) switching to A–N–B would make it 3 cars there: 4(3)+22=344(3)+22 = 34 min — worse.

No car can improve by switching, so this is the stable order.

Answer: 2

Q2Networks & RoutesMCQ

If all the cars follow the police order, what is the difference in travel time (in minutes) between a car which takes the route A-N-B and a car that takes the route A-M-B?

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Difference in travel time between the two routes

From the stable assignment, 2 cars take A–M–B and 2 cars take A–N–B. We compute each route's time directly.

Route times at m=2,  n=2m = 2,\; n = 2

A–M–B (2 cars on A–M, 2 cars on M–B):

  • A–M: 3(2)+3=93(2)+3 = 9 min
  • M–B: 0.9(2)+19.1=20.90.9(2)+19.1 = 20.9 min
  • Total: 9+20.9=29.99 + 20.9 = 29.9 min

A–N–B (2 cars on A–N, 2 cars on N–B):

  • A–N: 2+19=212+19 = 21 min
  • N–B: 3(2)+3=93(2)+3 = 9 min
  • Total: 21+9=3021 + 9 = 30 min
RouteCarsTravel time
A–M–B229.9 min
A–N–B230.0 min

Difference

30−29.9=0.1 minutes30 - 29.9 = 0.1 \text{ minutes}

Answer: 0.1 (Choice B)

Q3Networks & RoutesTITA

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route. How many cars would the police department order to take the A-M-N-B route so that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order while the other cars follow the order? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.)

Show solution

Correct answer: 2

Finding the stable assignment with three routes

A new one-way road M→N is added, giving three routes: A–M–B, A–N–B, and A–M–N–B. The M–N road takes 7 min for one car, plus 1 min per additional car, so its formula is 7+1(z−1)=z+67 + 1(z-1) = z + 6.

💡 Teacher tip: The key insight is that roads are shared — A–M is used by both A–M–B and A–M–N–B cars, and N–B is used by both A–N–B and A–M–N–B cars. The congestion on a road depends on the total cars on it, not just the cars on one route.

Step 1: Set up variables and shared-road loads

Let xx cars take A–M–B, yy take A–N–B, zz take A–M–N–B, with x+y+z=4x + y + z = 4.

RoadCars on it
A–Mx+zx + z
M–Bxx
A–Nyy
N–By+zy + z
M–Nzz

Step 2: Write each route's total time

  • A–M–B =[3(x+z)+3]+[0.9x+19.1]=3.9x+3z+22.1= [3(x+z)+3] + [0.9x+19.1] = 3.9x + 3z + 22.1
  • A–N–B =[y+19]+[3(y+z)+3]=4y+3z+22= [y+19] + [3(y+z)+3] = 4y + 3z + 22
  • A–M–N–B =[3(x+z)+3]+[z+6]+[3(y+z)+3]=3x+3y+7z+12= [3(x+z)+3] + [z+6] + [3(y+z)+3] = 3x + 3y + 7z + 12

Step 3: Try z=2z = 2 (so x+y=2x + y = 2)

The A–M–N–B time becomes: 3(x+y)+7(2)+12=3(2)+14+12=323(x+y) + 7(2) + 12 = 3(2) + 14 + 12 = 32

This is independent of the split between xx and yy — a promising sign.

Now set A–M–B = A–N–B to find the split: 3.9x+3(2)+22.1=4y+3(2)+223.9x + 3(2) + 22.1 = 4y + 3(2) + 22 3.9x+28.1=4y+283.9x + 28.1 = 4y + 28

Substitute y=2−xy = 2 - x: 3.9x+28.1=4(2−x)+28=36−4x3.9x + 28.1 = 4(2-x) + 28 = 36 - 4x 7.9x=7.97.9x = 7.9 x=1,y=1x = 1, \quad y = 1

Step 4: Verify all three route times and stability

RouteCarsTime
A–M–B13.9(1)+3(2)+22.1=323.9(1)+3(2)+22.1 = 32 min
A–N–B14(1)+3(2)+22=324(1)+3(2)+22 = 32 min
A–M–N–B23(1)+3(1)+7(2)+12=323(1)+3(1)+7(2)+12 = 32 min

All three routes take exactly 32 minutes. Any car that switches to another route increases the load on that route's roads, pushing its time above 32. So no car can improve — this is the stable order.

Answer: 2

Q4Networks & RoutesMCQ

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route. If all the cars follow the police order, what is the minimum travel time (in minutes) from A to B? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.)

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Minimum travel time under the police order (three routes)

From the stable assignment with the new M→N road, the police department orders:

RouteCars ordered
A–M–B1
A–N–B1
A–M–N–B2

Computing each route's time

The shared-road loads are:

  • A–M carries x+z=1+2=3x + z = 1 + 2 = 3 cars → time 3(3)+3=123(3)+3 = 12 min
  • M–B carries x=1x = 1 car → time 0.9(1)+19.1=200.9(1)+19.1 = 20 min
  • A–N carries y=1y = 1 car → time 1+19=201+19 = 20 min
  • N–B carries y+z=1+2=3y + z = 1 + 2 = 3 cars → time 3(3)+3=123(3)+3 = 12 min
  • M–N carries z=2z = 2 cars → time 2+6=82+6 = 8 min
RouteCalculationTime
A–M–B12+2012 + 2032 min
A–N–B20+1220 + 1232 min
A–M–N–B12+8+1212 + 8 + 1232 min

Every route takes exactly 32 minutes. Since the police order is a stable assignment (no car can improve by switching), and all routes are equal at 32, the minimum travel time any car experiences is 32 minutes.

Answer: 32 (Choice B)

Set · Puzzles

In a square layout of site 5m × 5m 25 equal-sized square platforms of different heights are built. The heights (in metre) of individual platforms are as shown below: Individuals (all of same height) are seated on these platforms. We say an individual A can reach individual B, if all the three following conditions are met;
(i) A and B are in the same row or column
(ii) A is at a lower height than B
(iii) If there is/are any individuals (s) between A and B, such individual(s) must be at a height lower than that of A. Thus in the table given above, consider the Individual seated at height 8 on 3rd row and 2nd column. He can be reached by four individuals. He can be reached by the individual on his left at height 7, by the two individuals on his right at heights of 4 and 6 and by the individual above at height
5. Rows in the layout are numbered from top to bottom and columns are numbered from left to right.

Square 5x5 layout: heights (in metre) of the 25 platforms. Rows numbered top to bottom, columns left to right.

C1C2C3C4C5
R161243
R295328
R378465
R439512
R517639
Q5PuzzlesMCQ

How many individuals in this layout can be reached by just one individual?

Show solution

Correct answer: C

Let us first pin down the rule precisely, because almost every mistake in this set comes from misreading it.

A can reach B when all three hold:

  1. A and B share a row or a column.
  2. A is shorter than B (A's platform height < B's platform height).
  3. Every person strictly between A and B is shorter than A.

A clean way to apply this: stand at B and scan outwards in each of the four directions. As you move away from B, keep a running maximum of the heights you have passed. A cell reaches B exactly when its height is less than B's height and greater than that running maximum (i.e. it is a new “record” as you walk outward, yet still below B). The moment you meet a cell at least as tall as B, scanning stops in that direction.

Applying this to all 25 cells gives the following reacher-count table (the number of individuals who can reach the person on that platform):

C1C2C3C4C5
R130130
R242205
R314161
R414301
R502216

We want the cells whose count is exactly 1. Reading the table, those are:

  • (1,3) — height 2
  • (3,1) — height 7
  • (3,3) — height 4
  • (3,5) — height 5
  • (4,1) — height 3
  • (4,5) — height 2
  • (5,4) — height 3

That is 7 cells.

Let me sanity-check two of them so the method is convincing.

  • (3,3), height 4: Up the column, (2,3)=3 is below 4 with nothing between, so it reaches; (1,3)=2 is then blocked by the 3. Down, (4,3)=5 is already taller than 4, so nothing. Left, (3,2)=8 is taller. Right, (3,4)=6 is taller. So exactly 1 reacher.
  • (1,3), height 2: Only (1,2)=1 to its left qualifies (1 < 2, nothing between). To the right (1,4)=4 is taller; below (2,3)=3 is taller. So exactly 1 reacher.

💡 Teacher tip: The “running maximum while scanning outward” trick is what turns a messy between-cell check into a quick scan — use it whenever a rule says “everyone in between must be shorter than me.”

Answer: 7 (Choice C)

Q6PuzzlesMCQ

Which of the following is true for any individual at a platform of height 1 m in this layout?

Show solution

Correct answer: D

Look directly at condition (ii) of the reach rule: for A to reach B, A must be at a lower height than B.

Now consider any individual on a platform of height 1 m. Since 1 m is the lowest height appearing in the entire layout, there is simply nobody shorter available to act as a reacher. The other two conditions become irrelevant — condition (ii) already fails for every possible candidate.

We can confirm this against the full reacher-count table:

C1C2C3C4C5
R130130
R242205
R314161
R414301
R502216

The three height-1 platforms are (1,2), (4,4) and (5,1), and each shows a reacher-count of 0.

💡 Teacher tip: Whenever a question singles out the minimum (or maximum) value in a comparison-based rule, ask first what the inequality itself forbids — here the minimum can never be “reached” because nobody is below it.

Answer: They cannot be reached by anyone (Choice D)

Q7PuzzlesMCQ

We can find two individuals who cannot be reached by anyone in

Show solution

Correct answer: C

An individual who “cannot be reached by anyone” is simply a cell whose reacher-count is 0.

From the full reacher-count table:

C1C2C3C4C5
R130130
R242205
R314161
R414301
R502216

the zero-count cells are:

  • (1,2)
  • (1,5)
  • (2,4)
  • (4,4)
  • (5,1)

Now test each option to see whether it contains two of these:

  • Last row (R5): only (5,1) → one.
  • Fourth row (R4): only (4,4) → one.
  • Fourth column (C4): (2,4) and (4,4) → two. ✓
  • Middle column (C3): none.

So the fourth column is the only listed region holding two unreachable individuals.

💡 Teacher tip: For “find two in the same row/column” questions, list the qualifying cells first, then just read off which row/column they cluster in — don't re-derive counts for each option.

Answer: the fourth column (Choice C)

Q8PuzzlesMCQ

Which of the following statements is true about this layout?

Show solution

Correct answer: C

We need the one statement that is true for the whole layout. The reacher-count table is our working tool:

C1C2C3C4C5
R130130
R242205
R314161
R414301
R502216

Check each option.

A. Each row has someone reached by 5 or more. Row maximums are R1 = 3, R2 = 5, R3 = 6, R4 = 4, R5 = 6. Rows 1 and 4 have nobody with 5 or more. False.

B. Each row has someone who cannot be reached by anyone (count 0). Row 3's counts are 1, 4, 1, 6, 1 — no zero. False.

C. Each row has at least two individuals reached by an equal number. Look for a repeated value in each row:

  • R1: 3, 0, 1, 3, 0 → 3 repeats, 0 repeats. ✓
  • R2: 4, 2, 2, 0, 5 → 2 repeats. ✓
  • R3: 1, 4, 1, 6, 1 → 1 repeats (three times). ✓
  • R4: 1, 4, 3, 0, 1 → 1 repeats. ✓
  • R5: 0, 2, 2, 1, 6 → 2 repeats. ✓

Every row qualifies. True.

D. All height-9 individuals are reached by at least 5. The height-9 cells are (2,1), (4,2) and (5,5), with counts 4, 4 and 6. The first two are below 5. False.

💡 Teacher tip: For “which statement is true” questions with four independent claims, test the easiest-to-falsify claims first (here A, B, D each fail on a single counter-example); only C survives.

Answer: Each row has at least two individuals who can be reached by an equal number of individuals (Choice C)

Set · Data Tables

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O). The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not.. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
It is also known that:

  1. In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, In S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
  2. In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
  3. The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

Number of kids (whose mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education) in different types of schools, by region.
Columns: G = government primary school, P = private school, O = did not go to school.

RegionGPOTotal
NE42005003005000
W4200190012007300
S51003003005700
TOTAL135002700180018000
Q9Data TablesMCQ

What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

Setting up the full region-by-school-type table

Before answering any question, we need to build the complete table of kids by region and school type. Let's work through it step by step.

Step 1 — Region sizes (villages × 50 kids each):

RegionVillagesKids per villageTotal kids
NE150507,500
W2505012,500
S2005010,000
Total60030,000

Step 2 — Overall school-type split (given as percentages of 30,000):

  • Government (G): 55%×30000=16,50055\% \times 30000 = 16{,}500
  • Private (P): 37%×30000=11,10037\% \times 30000 = 11{,}100
  • Out of school (O): 8%×30000=2,4008\% \times 30000 = 2{,}400

Step 3 — Use the three clues to pin down each region's G and O:

  1. Clue 1 (S): 60% of S's kids were in G → GS=60%×10000=6,000G_S = 60\% \times 10000 = 6{,}000. Also, in S every kid whose mother completed primary education was in school, so all out-of-school kids in S must come from the mothers-who-dropped-out group. The given table shows O in S (dropped-out group) = 300, so OS=300O_S = 300.

  2. Clue 2 (NE): Among NE's out-of-school kids, 50% had mothers who dropped out. The table gives O in NE (dropped-out group) = 300, so ONE=300×2=600O_{NE} = 300 \times 2 = 600.

  3. Clue 3 (NE = W for G): We know total G = 16,500 and GS=6,000G_S = 6{,}000, so the remaining G for NE and W together = 16500−6000=10,50016500 - 6000 = 10{,}500. Since GNE=GWG_{NE} = G_W, each gets 10,500÷2=5,25010{,}500 \div 2 = 5{,}250.

Step 4 — Fill P by subtraction (Total − G − O = P):

RegionGPOTotal
NE5,2501,6506007,500
W5,2505,7501,50012,500
S6,0003,70030010,000
Total16,50011,1002,40030,000

Answering the question

The question asks: What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?

From the S row: P in S = 3,700 and total kids in S = 10,000.

370010000×100=37%\frac{3700}{10000} \times 100 = 37\%

Answer: 37% (Choice A)

Q10Data TablesMCQ

Among the kids in W whose mothers had completed primary education, how many were not in school?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

What we need

We need the number of kids in W whose mothers completed primary education and who were not in school (O).

Building the full table

Region sizes: NE = 7,500; W = 12,500; S = 10,000 (total 30,000).

Overall school split: G = 16,500; P = 11,100; O = 2,400.

Applying the three clues:

  1. In S, 60% were in G → GS=6,000G_S = 6{,}000. Also, all mother-completed kids in S were in school, so every out-of-school kid in S had a mother who dropped out. The given table shows O in S (dropped-out group) = 300, so OS=300O_S = 300.
  2. In NE, 50% of O kids had mothers who dropped out. The table gives O in NE (dropped-out group) = 300, so ONE=600O_{NE} = 600.
  3. G in NE = G in W. Remaining G after S = 16500−6000=10,50016500 - 6000 = 10{,}500, split equally → GNE=GW=5,250G_{NE} = G_W = 5{,}250.

Filling P by subtraction:

RegionGPOTotal
NE5,2501,6506007,500
W5,2505,7501,50012,500
S6,0003,70030010,000
Total16,50011,1002,40030,000

Answering the question

From the full table, W has 1,500 kids not in school (O).

The given table (mothers who dropped out) shows that of W's O kids, 1,200 had mothers who dropped out.

Therefore, the O kids in W whose mothers completed primary education:

1500−1200=3001500 - 1200 = 300

💡 Teacher tip: The key distinction here is between the total O kids in W (1,500, from the full table) and the dropped-out-mother O kids in W (1,200, from the given table). The difference is exactly the completed-mother O kids we need.

Answer: 300 (Choice A)

Q11Data TablesMCQ

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools. What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

Setting up the follow-up survey

Two years later, all formerly out-of-school (O) kids are now in school. We need to figure out how many of W's formerly-out-of-school kids joined G, then add that to W's original G count.

Step 1 — Recall the O kids by region (from the full table built using the clues):

RegionO kids (earlier)
NE600
W1,500
S300
Total2,400

Step 2 — Determine which redistribution rule applies to which region.

The three rules are:

  • Rule A: 25% of former-O kids join G
  • Rule B: 100% of former-O kids join G
  • Rule C: 50% of former-O kids join G

Overall, 50% of all 2,400 former-O kids joined G, i.e., 0.50×2400=12000.50 \times 2400 = 1200 kids joined G.

We need to assign {25%, 100%, 50%} to {NE, W, S} so that the total joining G equals 1,200:

600×f1+1500×f2+300×f3=1200600 \times f_1 + 1500 \times f_2 + 300 \times f_3 = 1200

where {f1,f2,f3}={0.25,1.0,0.5}\{f_1, f_2, f_3\} = \{0.25, 1.0, 0.5\} in some order.

Testing the arrangements:

Assignment (NE, W, S)G from NEG from WG from STotal G
25%, 50%, 100%600×0.25=150600 \times 0.25 = 1501500×0.50=7501500 \times 0.50 = 750300×1.0=300300 \times 1.0 = 3001,200 ✓
25%, 100%, 50%1501,5001501,800 ✗
50%, 25%, 100%300375300975 ✗
50%, 100%, 25%3001,500751,875 ✗
100%, 25%, 50%6003751501,125 ✗
100%, 50%, 25%600750751,425 ✗

The only arrangement that gives exactly 1,200 is: NE → 25%, W → 50%, S → 100%.

Step 3 — Compute G in W now.

  • W's formerly-out-of-school kids who joined G: 1500×50%=7501500 \times 50\% = 750
  • W's original G kids (who did not change schools): 5,250

G in W now=5250+750=6000G \text{ in W now} = 5250 + 750 = 6000

💡 Teacher tip: "No kid changed schools" means kids already in G or P stayed put — only the former-O kids moved into the school system.

Answer: 6,000 (Choice A)

Q12Data TablesMCQ

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools. What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

What we need

We need the percentage of S's mothers-who-dropped-out kids who are now in G, after the follow-up survey.

Step 1 — Recall the redistribution assignment

From the follow-up survey conditions (worked out in the previous question), the three regions were assigned:

  • NE → 25% of former-O kids join G
  • W → 50% of former-O kids join G
  • S → 100% of former-O kids join G

So all of S's formerly-out-of-school kids joined G.

Step 2 — Identify S's dropped-out-mother (D-group) kids

From Clue 1: in S, all kids whose mothers completed primary education were in school. This means every out-of-school kid in S had a mother who dropped out — there are no completed-mother O kids in S.

The given table shows S's D-group breakdown:

GPOTotal
S (D-group)5,1003003005,700

Step 3 — Apply the follow-up changes to S's D-group

  • The 300 O kids all join G (since S → 100% to G).
  • No kid changes school, so the 5,100 already in G stay in G, and the 300 in P stay in P.
G (now)P (now)Total
S (D-group)5100+300=5,4005100 + 300 = 5{,}4003005,700

Step 4 — Compute the percentage

54005700×100=94.736…≈94.7%\frac{5400}{5700} \times 100 = 94.736\ldots \approx 94.7\%

💡 Teacher tip: The key insight is that in S, all out-of-school kids belonged to the dropped-out-mother group (Clue 1), so all 300 former-O kids who joined G are part of the D-group we're measuring.

Answer: 94.7% (Choice A)

Set · Puzzles

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection. For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:

  1. No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.
  2. 150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.
  3. The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.
  4. Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

Q13PuzzlesMCQ

What best can be concluded about the number of candidates sitting for the separate test for BIE who were at or above the 90th percentile overall in CET?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

Setting up the Venn diagram for the 200 candidates

We focus only on the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall in CET, and sort them by which sections they cleared the 80th percentile in.

Let us label the seven regions of the three-circle Venn diagram (P, C, M):

RegionMeaningSize
Only P≥80th in P onlyxx
Only C≥80th in C onlyxx
Only M≥80th in M onlyxx
P & C only≥80th in P and C, not Maa
P & M only≥80th in P and M, not Cbb
C & M only≥80th in C and M, not Pcc
All three≥80th in P, C, and Mdd
Nonebelow 80th in all three00
  • Clue 1 tells us the "none" region is 0.
  • Clue 3 tells us the three "exactly one section" regions are equal; call each xx.
  • Clue 2 tells us a+b+c=150a + b + c = 150.

So the total gives us: 3x+a+b+c+d=200  ⟹  3x+150+d=200  ⟹  3x+d=503x + a + b + c + d = 200 \implies 3x + 150 + d = 200 \implies 3x + d = 50

Using the ratio clue (Clue 4)

"Below 80th percentile in P" means the candidate is not in P, i.e. they are in Only C, Only M, or C&M only: Below 80th in P=x+x+c=2x+c\text{Below 80th in P} = x + x + c = 2x + c

Similarly: Below 80th in C=2x+b,Below 80th in M=2x+a\text{Below 80th in C} = 2x + b, \qquad \text{Below 80th in M} = 2x + a

Clue 4 says these are in the ratio 4:2:14: 2: 1, so we can write: 2x+c=4k,2x+b=2k,2x+a=k2x + c = 4k,\quad 2x + b = 2k,\quad 2x + a = k

Adding all three: 6x+(a+b+c)=7k  ⟹  6x+150=7k6x + (a+b+c) = 7k \implies 6x + 150 = 7k

For kk to be a positive integer, 6x+1506x + 150 must be divisible by 7. Combined with 3x+d=503x + d = 50 (so x≤16x \leq 16), the valid solutions are:

Casexxddaabbcc
Case 1341184290
Case 210201040100

Answering the question

A candidate sits the BIE separate test if they are at or above the 80th percentile in P but are not eligible for AIE's AET.

Among the 200 candidates (all at or above 90th overall), AET eligibility requires being at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections. So the only candidates among the 200 who have P but are not AET-eligible are the "Only P" candidates — they have P but not two sections.

That count is simply xx, which is either 3 or 10.

Answer: 3 or 10 (Choice A)

Q14PuzzlesTITA

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in CET?

Show solution

Correct answer: 60

Recalling the solved Venn diagram

From the set-up, the 200 candidates at or above the 90th percentile overall split into Venn regions with two possible cases:

Casexx (each "only" group)dd (all three)aa (P&C)bb (P&M)cc (C&M)
Case 1341184290
Case 210201040100

These satisfy 3x+d=503x + d = 50 and a+b+c=150a + b + c = 150, with the below-80th ratios 4:2:14:2:1.

Applying the extra condition

The question states that the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections (i.e. dd) is a multiple of 5.

  • d=41d = 41 → not a multiple of 5.
  • d=20d = 20 → is a multiple of 5. ✓

So we are in Case 2: x=10x = 10, d=20d = 20, a=10a = 10, b=40b = 40, c=100c = 100.

Finding candidates at or above 80th in both P and M

Candidates at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M come from two regions:

  • P & M only (not C): b=40b = 40
  • All three (P, C, and M): d=20d = 20

b+d=40+20=60b + d = 40 + 20 = 60

Answer: 60

Q15PuzzlesTITA

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, then how many candidates were shortlisted for the AET for AIE?

Show solution

Correct answer: 170

Recalling the solved Venn diagram

From the set-up, the 200 candidates at or above the 90th percentile overall split into Venn regions with two possible cases:

Casexx (each "only" group)dd (all three)aa (P&C)bb (P&M)cc (C&M)
Case 1341184290
Case 210201040100

Applying the extra condition

The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections is dd, which must be a multiple of 5.

  • d=41d = 41 → not a multiple of 5.
  • d=20d = 20 → multiple of 5. ✓

So we use Case 2: d=20d = 20.

Counting AET shortlists

AIE shortlists for the AET every candidate (among the 200) who is at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections. These are:

  • Candidates at or above 80th in exactly two sections: a+b+c=150a + b + c = 150 (given by Clue 2).
  • Candidates at or above 80th in all three sections: d=20d = 20.

AET shortlists=150+d=150+20=170\text{AET shortlists} = 150 + d = 150 + 20 = 170

Answer: 170

Q16PuzzlesMCQ

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also are at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, is more than 100, how many candidates had to sit for the separate test for BIE?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

Recalling the solved Venn diagram

From the set-up, the 200 candidates at or above the 90th percentile overall split into Venn regions with two possible cases:

Casexx (each "only" group)dd (all three)aa (P&C)bb (P&M)cc (C&M)
Case 1341184290
Case 210201040100

Applying the extra condition

The number of candidates at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in P is: x+a+b+dx + a + b + d

(These are all regions that include P: Only P, P&C only, P&M only, and All three.)

  • Case 1 (x=3x=3): 3+18+42+41=1043 + 18 + 42 + 41 = 104
  • Case 2 (x=10x=10): 10+10+40+20=8010 + 10 + 40 + 20 = 80

The condition "more than 100" selects Case 1: x=3x = 3, a=18a = 18, b=42b = 42, c=90c = 90, d=41d = 41.

Counting BIE separate-test candidates

We are told there are 400 candidates in total at or above the 80th percentile in P. These split into two streams:

  1. Candidates going through AIE's AET who are also at or above 80th in P: These are candidates among the 200 who are at or above 80th in P and in at least two sections (AET requires at least two sections at or above 80th). This is the P&C, P&M, and All-three regions: a+b+d=18+42+41=101a + b + d = 18 + 42 + 41 = 101

  2. Everyone else at or above 80th in P who is not going through AET must sit BIE's separate test: 400−101=299400 - 101 = 299

💡 Teacher tip: The key insight is that BIE's separate test captures all P-qualified candidates who don't go through AIE's AET — not just those among the 200, but all 400. We subtract the AET-eligible-with-P count from 400.

Answer: 299 (Choice A)

Set · Scheduling & Sequencing

There are 21 employees working in a division, out of whom 10 are special-skilled employees (SE) and the remaining are regular-skilled employees (RE). During the next five months, the division has to complete five projects every month. Out of the 25 projects, 5 projects are "challenging", while the remaining ones are "standard". Each of the challenging projects has to be completed in different months. Every month, five teams — T1 T2, T3, T4 and T5, work on one project each. T1, T2, T3, T4 and T5 are allotted the challenging project in the first, second, third, fourth and fifth month, respectively. The team assigned the challenging project has one more employee than the rest. In the first month, T1 has one more SE than T2, T2 has one more SE than T3, T 3 has one more SE than T4, and T4 has one more SE than T5. Between two successive months, the composition of the teams changes as follows:
a. The team allotted the challenging project, gets two SE from the team which was allotted the challenging project in the previous month. In exchange, one RE is shifted from the former team to the latter team.
b. After the above exchange, if T1 has any SE and T5 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T1 to T5, and one RE is shifted from T5 to T1. Also, if T2 has any SE and T4 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T2 to T4, and one RE is shifted from T4 to T2. Each standard project has a total of 100 credit points, while each challenging project has 200 credit points. The credit points are equally shared between the employees included in that team.

Q17Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

The number of times in which the composition of team T2 and the number of times in which composition of team T4 remained unchanged in two successive months are:

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Setting up the team compositions

Team sizes. There are 21 employees across 5 teams. The challenging team has one more employee than each standard team, so the only split that works is:

4+4+4+4+5=214 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 5 = 21

Standard teams have 4 employees; the challenging team has 5.

Month 1 SE counts. We are told the SE counts step down by 1 from T1 to T5, and there are 10 SE in total. If T5 has xx SE, then:

(x+4)+(x+3)+(x+2)+(x+1)+x=10  ⟹  5x+10=10  ⟹  x=0(x+4) + (x+3) + (x+2) + (x+1) + x = 10 \implies 5x + 10 = 10 \implies x = 0

So the Month 1 SE counts are T1=4, T2=3, T3=2, T4=1, T5=0, and the RE counts (team size minus SE) are T1=1, T2=1, T3=2, T4=3, T5=4.

Transition rules (applied each month in order):

  1. Rule (a): The new challenging team receives 2 SE from the previous month's challenging team, and sends 1 RE back to that team.
  2. Rule (b): After Rule (a), check two conditional swaps:
  • If T1 has ≥1 SE and T5 has ≥1 RE: move 1 SE from T1→T5 and 1 RE from T5→T1.
  • If T2 has ≥1 SE and T4 has ≥1 RE: move 1 SE from T2→T4 and 1 RE from T4→T2.

Applying these rules month by month gives the complete table (shown as SE, RE):

MonthT1T2T3T4T5Challenging
14, 13, 12, 21, 30, 4T1
21, 34, 12, 22, 21, 3T2
30, 41, 34, 13, 12, 2T3
40, 41, 32, 25, 02, 2T4
50, 40, 42, 24, 04, 1T5

💡 Teacher tip: Always verify your table — each row should sum to 10 SE and 11 RE, and the challenging team should be the only 5-person team.

Answering the question

A team's composition remained unchanged across two successive months if both its SE count and RE count stayed the same.

T2 across all five months:

TransitionT2 before → afterChanged?
M1 → M2(3, 1) → (4, 1)Yes (SE changed)
M2 → M3(4, 1) → (1, 3)Yes
M3 → M4(1, 3) → (1, 3)No
M4 → M5(1, 3) → (0, 4)Yes

T2 remained unchanged 1 time (M3→M4).

T4 across all five months:

TransitionT4 before → afterChanged?
M1 → M2(1, 3) → (2, 2)Yes
M2 → M3(2, 2) → (3, 1)Yes
M3 → M4(3, 1) → (5, 0)Yes
M4 → M5(5, 0) → (4, 0)Yes

T4 remained unchanged 0 times.

The pair is (1, 0).

Answer: (1, 0) — Choice B

Q18Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

The number of SE in T1 and T5 for the projects in the third month are, respectively:

Show solution

Correct answer: A

Setting up the team compositions

Team sizes. There are 21 employees across 5 teams. The challenging team has one more employee than each standard team:

4+4+4+4+5=214 + 4 + 4 + 4 + 5 = 21

So standard teams have 4 employees and the challenging team has 5.

Month 1 SE counts. The SE counts decrease by 1 from T1 to T5, totaling 10 SE. If T5 has xx SE:

(x+4)+(x+3)+(x+2)+(x+1)+x=10  ⟹  x=0(x+4)+(x+3)+(x+2)+(x+1)+x = 10 \implies x = 0

Month 1 SE: T1=4, T2=3, T3=2, T4=1, T5=0; RE: T1=1, T2=1, T3=2, T4=3, T5=4.

Transition rules:

  1. Rule (a): The new challenging team gets 2 SE from the previous challenging team and sends 1 RE back.
  2. Rule (b): If T1 has SE and T5 has RE, swap 1 SE (T1→T5) and 1 RE (T5→T1). If T2 has SE and T4 has RE, swap 1 SE (T2→T4) and 1 RE (T4→T2).

Working through all five months (shown as SE, RE):

MonthT1T2T3T4T5Challenging
14, 13, 12, 21, 30, 4T1
21, 34, 12, 22, 21, 3T2
30, 41, 34, 13, 12, 2T3
40, 41, 32, 25, 02, 2T4
50, 40, 42, 24, 04, 1T5

Answering the question

We need the SE counts of T1 and T5 in Month 3. Reading directly from the Month 3 row:

TeamSE in Month 3
T10
T52

So the number of SE in T1 and T5 for the third month are 0 and 2, respectively.

Answer: (0, 2) — Choice A

Q19Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

Which of the following CANNOT be the total credit points earned by any employee from the projects?

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Credit points per employee per project

Each project's credit points are equally shared among all employees on that team.

  • Standard project: 100 points, team of 4 → each member earns 1004=25\frac{100}{4} = 25 points.
  • Challenging project: 200 points, team of 5 → each member earns 2005=40\frac{200}{5} = 40 points.

💡 Teacher tip: The key insight is that team sizes are fixed (4 for standard, 5 for challenging), so the per-person credit is always 25 or 40 — no other value is possible in any single month.

Total credit over five months

Each employee works on one project each month for 5 months. In any given month, an employee earns:

  • 40 points if they are on that month's challenging team, or
  • 25 points if they are on a standard team.

If an employee is on the challenging team in qq of the 5 months (where qq can be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5), their total is:

Total=40q+25(5−q)=125+15q\text{Total} = 40q + 25(5 - q) = 125 + 15q

The possible totals are:

qq (challenging months)Total = 125+15q125 + 15q
0125
1140
2155
3170
4185
5200

The value 150 does not appear in this list, so it cannot be earned by any employee.

Answer: 150 — Choice B

Q20Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

One of the employees named Aneek scored 185 points. Which of the following CANNOT be true?

Show solution

Correct answer: D

What does 185 points tell us?

From the credit formula (standard project = 25 per member, challenging project = 40 per member), an employee's 5-month total is:

Total=125+15q\text{Total} = 125 + 15q

where qq is the number of months they were on the challenging team. Setting this equal to 185:

125+15q=185  ⟹  15q=60  ⟹  q=4125 + 15q = 185 \implies 15q = 60 \implies q = 4

So Aneek was on the challenging team in exactly 4 of the 5 months, and on a standard team in exactly 1 month.

Since the challenging team in month mm is TmT_m (Month 1→T1, Month 2→T2, etc.), Aneek's "off" month — the one month he was not on the challenging team — determines which four teams he worked in:

OptionTeams Aneek worked inOff month (not on challenging team)
AT1, T2, T3, T4Month 5
BT1, T2, T4, T5Month 3
CT2, T3, T4, T5Month 1
DT1, T3, T4, T5Month 2

We need to find which option is impossible.

The full team composition table

For reference, here is the complete monthly table (SE, RE):

MonthT1T2T3T4T5Challenging
14, 13, 12, 21, 30, 4T1
21, 34, 12, 22, 21, 3T2
30, 41, 34, 13, 12, 2T3
40, 41, 32, 25, 02, 2T4
50, 40, 42, 24, 04, 1T5

Testing Option D (off in Month 2)

Option D requires Aneek to be on the challenging team in Months 1, 3, 4, 5 — meaning he is in T1 in Month 1, T3 in Month 3, T4 in Month 4, and T5 in Month 5 — and is not on the challenging team (T2) in Month 2.

Step 1: Where can Aneek go from T1 in Month 1 to Month 2?

During the Month 1→2 transition:

  • Rule (a): T2 (new challenging team) takes 2 SE from T1 (old challenging team), and T1 receives 1 RE from T2. So SE can move from T1→T2.
  • Rule (b): T1↔T5 swap (1 SE each way) and T2↔T4 swap (1 SE each way).

Notice that T3 is not involved in any transfer during this transition. So an employee starting in T1 can only end up in T1, T2, T4, or T5 in Month 2 — never T3.

Since Month 2 is Aneek's off month, he is not in T2. So in Month 2, Aneek is in T1, T4, or T5.

Step 2: Can Aneek reach T3 in Month 3?

During the Month 2→3 transition:

  • Rule (a): T3 (new challenging team) takes 2 SE from T2 (old challenging team), and T3 sends 1 RE to T2. So the only way to enter T3 is from T2.
  • Rule (b): Only T1↔T5 and T2↔T4 swaps occur — T3 is not involved.

So to be in T3 in Month 3, Aneek must have been in T2 or T3 in Month 2. But:

  • He is not in T2 (that's his off month — T2 is the challenging team in Month 2).
  • He is not in T3 (we showed in Step 1 that he cannot reach T3 from T1 in one transition).

💡 Teacher tip: The critical observation is that T3 is a "bystander" in both the M1→M2 and M2→M3 transitions — it neither sends nor receives anyone. The only way into T3 during M2→M3 is via Rule (a) from T2, but Aneek cannot be in T2 during Month 2.

Conclusion: It is impossible for Aneek to be in T1 (Month 1), skip T2 (Month 2), and then appear in T3 (Month 3). Therefore Option D cannot be true.

The other three options (off in Months 5, 3, and 1 respectively) are each achievable, as the transition chains do not require passing through an unreachable team.

Answer: Aneek worked only in teams T1, T3, T4, and T5 — Choice D

Set · Networks & Routes

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule. The underlying principle that they are working on is the following: Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day.

Q21Networks & RoutesMCQ

If the underlying principle is to be satisfied in such a way that the journey between any two cities can be performed using only direct (non-stop) flights, then the minimum number of direct flights to be scheduled is:

Show solution

Correct answer: C

Setting up the key idea

The airline's principle says: any person in any of the 10 cities must be able to travel to any other city in the morning and return by the evening of the same day.

In this question, we are told that every journey must be possible using only direct (non-stop) flights. That means every pair of cities must be connected by a direct flight.

How many flights does a single pair need?

Take any two cities, say X and Y. To satisfy the principle for both directions of travel:

  1. A morning flight X → Y (so someone in X can leave in the morning).
  2. A morning flight Y → X (so someone in Y can leave in the morning).
  3. An evening flight X → Y (so someone in Y can return in the evening).
  4. An evening flight Y → X (so someone in X can return in the evening).

So each pair of cities needs 4 direct flights.

Counting the pairs

There are 10 cities, so the number of unordered pairs is:

(102)=10×92=45\binom{10}{2} = \frac{10 \times 9}{2} = 45

Total flights

45 pairs×4 flights per pair=18045 \text{ pairs} \times 4 \text{ flights per pair} = 180

💡 Teacher tip: The trap here is forgetting that "morning and return by evening" applies to both cities in a pair — so each pair needs flights in both directions at both times, giving 4 flights, not 2.

Answer: 180 (Choice C)

Q22Networks & RoutesMCQ

Suppose three of the ten cities are to be developed as hubs. A hub is a city which is connected with every other city by direct flights each way, both in the morning as well as in the evening. The only direct flights which will be scheduled are originating and/or terminating in one of the hubs. Then the minimum number of direct flights that need to be scheduled so that the underlying principle of the airline to serve all the ten cities is met without visiting more than one hub during one trip is:

Show solution

Correct answer: C

Understanding the hub structure

We choose 3 of the 10 cities as hubs. The rules are:

  • Each hub is connected to every other city (including the other two hubs) by direct flights both ways, morning and evening.
  • The only direct flights scheduled are those with at least one end at a hub.
  • No trip may pass through more than one hub.

Because every non-hub city connects to a hub, and hubs connect to each other, any city can reach any other city via at most one hub — satisfying the "at most one hub per trip" rule.

Counting connected pairs

Let the 3 hubs be H1, H2, H3 and the 7 non-hubs be the remaining cities.

Type of pairCountReason
Hub-to-hub(32)=3\binom{3}{2} = 3Each pair of hubs is directly linked
Hub-to-non-hub3×7=213 \times 7 = 21Each hub links to each of the 7 non-hubs
Total connected pairs24

Note: there are no direct flights between two non-hub cities, since those flights don't involve a hub.

Flights per pair

As established in the first question, each connected pair needs 4 flights (morning and evening, each direction).

Total flights

24×4=9624 \times 4 = 96

💡 Teacher tip: The key insight is that non-hub-to-non-hub pairs don't need direct flights — they connect through a hub. This is what saves flights compared to the fully-connected network in Question 1.

Answer: 96 (Choice C)

Q23Networks & RoutesTITA

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following: 1. Both cities are in G1 2. Between A and any city in G2 3. Between B and any city in G3 4. Between C and any city in G4 Then the minimum number of direct flights that satisfies the underlying principle of the airline is:

Show solution

Correct answer: 40

Understanding the group structure

The 10 cities are divided into 4 groups:

GroupCities
G13 cities: A, B, C
G23 cities
G32 cities
G42 cities

Direct flights are allowed only between:

  1. Two cities both in G1 (i.e., among A, B, C).
  2. A and any city in G2.
  3. B and any city in G3.
  4. C and any city in G4.

Why the principle is satisfied

Cities A, B, C form a fully connected core (every pair among them is linked). Then:

  • A feeds G2,
  • B feeds G3,
  • C feeds G4.

So any city can reach the core through its designated link, and from the core reach any other group. Every city can travel to any other city (morning) and return (evening).

Counting connected pairs

Link typePairsCalculation
Within G1 (A–B, A–C, B–C)3(32)=3\binom{3}{2} = 3
A to each city in G231×31 \times 3
B to each city in G321×21 \times 2
C to each city in G421×21 \times 2
Total10

Total flights

Each pair needs 4 flights (morning and evening, each direction):

10×4=4010 \times 4 = 40

💡 Teacher tip: The structure here is a star-of-stars: A, B, C are the central core, and each of them is the sole gateway for one group. This minimises flights while keeping the network connected.

Answer: 40

Q24Networks & RoutesTITA

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups Gl, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that Gl consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following: 1. Both cities are in G1 2. Between A and any city in G2 3. Between B and any city in G3 4. Between C and any city in G4 However, due to operational difficulties at A, it was later decided that the only flights that would operate at A would be those to and from B. Cities in G2 would have to be assigned to G3 or to G4. What would be the maximum reduction in the number of direct flights as compared to the situation before the operational difficulties arose?

Show solution

Correct answer: 4

Recalling the original arrangement (from Question 3)

Before the operational difficulties, the network had 10 connected pairs (and thus 40 flights):

Link typePairs
Within G1: A–B, A–C, B–C3
A to each city in G2 (3 cities)3
B to each city in G3 (2 cities)2
C to each city in G4 (2 cities)2
Total10

What changes due to operational difficulties at A?

The new rule: the only flights operating at A are those to and from B.

This means the following links are removed:

  1. A–C link (1 pair) — A can no longer connect to C.
  2. A to each city in G2 (3 pairs) — A can no longer serve G2.

That is 4 pairs removed.

What replaces the lost G2 connections?

The 3 cities formerly in G2 must be reassigned to G3 or G4:

  • If a city goes to G3, it links to B.
  • If a city goes to G4, it links to C.

Either way, each of the 3 former G2 cities gets one new link (to B or to C). That is 3 new pairs added.

Net change in connected pairs

ChangePairs
Removed (A–C and A–G2)−4
Added (G2 cities → B or C)+3
Net change−1

This net change of −1 pair holds regardless of how the 3 cities are split between G3 and G4 — each city contributes exactly one new pair either way.

Does the network stay connected?

  • A–B still exists (A connects to the core via B).
  • B–C still exists (the core remains connected).
  • All former G2 cities now connect through B or C.

So the underlying principle is still satisfied.

Maximum reduction in flights

Each pair corresponds to 4 flights. A reduction of 1 pair means:

1×4=4 flights1 \times 4 = 4 \text{ flights}

💡 Teacher tip: The reduction is the same no matter how you split the G2 cities between G3 and G4, because each reassigned city creates exactly one replacement link. The only net loss is the A–C link, which costs 4 flights.

Answer: 4

Set · Scheduling & Sequencing

Healthy Bites is a fastfood joint serving three items, burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of Ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare upto to 3 portions of fries at a time, and takes 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore the time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders. Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any order are served as and when ready; however,the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served. The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:

Orders of three clients (Healthy Bites):

Client no.TimeOrder
110:001 burger, 3 portions of fries, 1 order of ice cream
210:052 portions of fries, 1 order of ice cream
310:071 burger, 1 portion of fries
Q25Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

Assume that only one client's order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while a previous order is being prepared. At what time is the order placed by Client 1 completely served?

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Setting up the problem

Healthy Bites has two employees (Anish and Bani) and one automatic fryer. The key preparation times are:

ItemPrepared byTime needed
BurgerAn employee10 minutes
Ice creamAn employee2 minutes
Fries (up to 3 portions per batch)Automatic fryer5 minutes

The fryer runs on its own, so employees are free to do other tasks while it operates. However, fries can never be prepared before an order is placed.

Applying the rule for this question

The rule states that only one client's order can be processed at a time. Client 1 placed the order at 10:00, so we handle Client 1's order first — no work on Client 2 or Client 3 may begin until Client 1 is fully served.

Client 1's order

Client 1 ordered: 1 burger, 3 portions of fries, 1 order of ice cream.

All three items can be started simultaneously at 10:00:

ItemMade byStartReady
1 burgerAnish10:0010:10
3 portions of fries (one batch)Fryer10:0010:05
1 ice creamBani10:0010:02

Finding the completion time

An order is completely served only when its last item is ready.

  • Ice cream is ready at 10:02.
  • Fries are ready at 10:05.
  • The burger — which takes the longest at 10 minutes — is ready at 10:10.

The burger is the binding item, so Client 1's order is completely served at 10:10.

Answer: 10:10 (Choice B)

Q26Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

Assume that only one client's order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while a previous order is being prepared. At what time is the order placed by Client 3 completely served?

Show solution

Correct answer: C

Understanding the rule

The rule is the same as before: only one client's order can be processed at a time. Orders are handled strictly one after another, in the order they were placed: Client 1 → Client 2 → Client 3.

Step 1 — Client 1 (placed 10:00)

Client 1 ordered: 1 burger, 3 portions of fries, 1 ice cream.

All three items start at 10:00 in parallel:

ItemMade byStartReady
BurgerAnish10:0010:10
3 portions friesFryer10:0010:05
Ice creamBani10:0010:02

The burger is the last item ready, so Client 1 is completely served at 10:10.

Step 2 — Client 2 (placed 10:05, but can only start at 10:10)

Client 2 ordered: 2 portions of fries, 1 ice cream (no burger).

ItemMade byStartReady
2 portions friesFryer10:1010:15
Ice creamBani10:1010:12

Anish has nothing to do (no burger in this order) and cannot start Client 3 yet. The fries take longer, so Client 2 is completely served at 10:15.

Step 3 — Client 3 (placed 10:07, but can only start at 10:15)

Client 3 ordered: 1 burger, 1 portion of fries.

ItemMade byStartReady
BurgerAnish10:1510:25
1 portion friesFryer10:1510:20

The burger takes 10 minutes and is the last item ready, so Client 3 is completely served at 10:25.

Answer: 10:25 (Choice C)

Q27Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. At what time is the order placed by Client 2 completely served?

Show solution

Correct answer: A

Understanding the new rule

Now employees may work on multiple orders at the same time. The only constraint is that we give priority to earlier orders — we never delay an earlier client's order to favour a later one.

Building the schedule

At 10:00 — Client 1 arrives (1 burger, 3 portions fries, 1 ice cream):

ItemMade byStartReady
BurgerAnish10:0010:10
3 portions friesFryer10:0010:05
Ice creamBani10:0010:02

At 10:05 — Client 2 arrives (2 portions fries, 1 ice cream):

  • Bani has been free since 10:02, so Bani starts Client 2's ice cream at 10:05 → ready at 10:07.
  • The fryer finished Client 1's fries at 10:05, so it starts Client 2's 2 portions of fries at 10:05 → ready at 10:10.
  • Neither of these tasks interferes with Anish, who is still making Client 1's burger (10:00–10:10). So Client 1 is not delayed.

When is Client 2 completely served?

Client 2's two items:

ItemReady at
Ice cream10:07
2 portions fries10:10

The fries are the binding item: they cannot start before 10:05 (the order time — fries are never made in anticipation) and they take 5 minutes, so the earliest they can be ready is 10:10.

Answer: 10:10 (Choice A)

Q28Scheduling & SequencingMCQ

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. Also assume that the fourth client came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, for how many minutes is exactly one of the employees idle?

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Understanding the task

We need to count, between 10:00 and 10:30, the number of minutes during which exactly one of the two employees (Anish or Bani) is idle. The automatic fryer is not an employee, so it never counts.

We use the same multi-order, priority-to-earlier-clients schedule from the previous question.

Full employee schedule

Let me trace what each employee does minute by minute.

Anish:

  • 10:00–10:10: Making Client 1's burger.
  • After 10:10: Nothing left to do — Client 2 has no burger, and Client 3's burger is already being handled by Bani (see below). So Anish is idle from 10:10 onward.

Bani:

  • 10:00–10:02: Making Client 1's ice cream.
  • 10:02–10:05: Idle (Client 2 hasn't arrived yet; Client 1's other items are handled by Anish and the fryer).
  • 10:05–10:07: Making Client 2's ice cream.
  • 10:07–10:17: Making Client 3's burger (Client 3 arrives at 10:07; Anish is still busy with Client 1's burger until 10:10, so Bani takes the burger to finish it as early as possible).
  • After 10:17: Idle — all three orders are fully served, and Client 4 doesn't arrive until 10:35.

💡 Teacher tip: The key insight is that at 10:07, when Client 3's order arrives, Bani is free but Anish is not. Since the goal is to serve as early as possible, Bani starts the burger right away (finishing at 10:17) rather than waiting for Anish to be free at 10:10 (which would finish at 10:20).

Minute-by-minute idle check

IntervalAnishBaniExactly one idle?
10:00–10:02Busy (burger, C1)Busy (ice cream, C1)No
10:02–10:05Busy (burger, C1)IdleYes — 3 min
10:05–10:07Busy (burger, C1)Busy (ice cream, C2)No
10:07–10:10Busy (burger, C1)Busy (burger, C3)No
10:10–10:17IdleBusy (burger, C3)Yes — 7 min
10:17–10:30IdleIdleNo (both idle)

Total

3+7=10 minutes3 + 7 = 10 \text{ minutes}

Answer: 10 (Choice B)

Set · Puzzles

Simple Happiness index (SHI) of a country is computed on the basis of three, parameters: social support (S),freedom to life choices (F) and corruption perception (C). Each of these three parameters is measured on a scale of 0 to 8 (integers only). A country is then categorised based on the total score obtained by summing the scores of all the three parameters, as shown in the following table:
Following diagram depicts the frequency distribution of the scores in S, F and C of 10 countries - Amda, Benga, Calla, Delma, Eppa, Varsa, Wanna, Xanda,Yanga and Zooma:
Further, the following are known.

  1. Amda and Calla jointly have the lowest total score, 7, with identical scores in all the three parameters.
  2. Zooma has a total score of
  3. All the 3 countries, which are categorised as happy, have the highest score ln exactly one parameter.

Table 1 - SHI category by total score:

Total Score0-45-89-1314-1920-24
CategoryVery UnhappyUnhappyNeutralHappyVery Happy

Diagram 2 - Frequency distribution (bar chart) of the scores in S (social support), F (freedom to life choices) and C (corruption perception) across the 10 countries. For each score value, the number of countries having that score in each parameter:

ScoreSFC
1021
2013
3324
4311
5230
6101
7110
Q29PuzzlesTITA

What is Amda's score in F?

Show solution

Correct answer: 1

We need Amda's score in F (freedom to life choices).

The frequency table (our anchor)

ScoreSFC
1021
2013
3324
4311
5230
6101
7110

Each column sums to 10 (the ten countries). No country scores 0 or 8 in any parameter.

Using Clue 1

Clue 1 says Amda and Calla have identical scores in all three parameters, their total is 7, and they are jointly the lowest.

Because the two countries share the same triple (S,F,C)(S,F,C), each of those three score values is used by at least two countries — one for Amda and one for Calla. So every score Amda/Calla holds must have a frequency of 2 or more in its column.

Values with frequency ≥2\ge 2 in each column:

ParameterEligible scores (freq ≥2\ge 2)
S3, 4, 5
F1, 3, 5
C2, 3

Finding the triple that sums to 7

We need S+F+C=7S + F + C = 7 picking one value from each row above.

  1. S=3S = 3: then F+C=4F + C = 4. The pair F=1, C=3F = 1,\ C = 3 works ⇒(3,1,3)=7\Rightarrow (3,1,3) = 7. ✓
  2. S=4S = 4: then F+C=3F + C = 3. The pair F=1, C=2F = 1,\ C = 2 works ⇒(4,1,2)=7\Rightarrow (4,1,2) = 7. ✓
  3. S=5S = 5: then F+C=2F + C = 2. No eligible pair gives 2 (C = 1 has frequency only 1). ✗

The two valid triples are (3,1,3)(3,1,3) and (4,1,2)(4,1,2) — and both have F=1F = 1.

💡 Teacher tip: When two entities share identical attribute values, each shared value must appear at least twice in the data. That single observation shrinks the search space dramatically.

Answer: 1

Q30PuzzlesTITA

What is Zooma's score in S?

Show solution

Correct answer: 6

We need Zooma's score in S. Zooma's total is 17 (Clue 2), and Clue 3 links the happy countries to the top scores.

The frequency table

ScoreSFC
1021
2013
3324
4311
5230
6101
7110

Identifying the three happy countries (Clue 3)

Clue 3 says the three happy countries each hold the highest score in exactly one parameter. Reading the top of each column:

  • Highest S score present = 7 (held by exactly 1 country).
  • Highest F score present = 7 (held by exactly 1 country).
  • Highest C score present = 6 (held by exactly 1 country; score 7 never occurs in C).

So the three happy countries are: the S = 7 holder, the F = 7 holder, and the C = 6 holder. Zooma (total 17) is one of them.

Testing which leader Zooma is

Case 1 — Zooma holds S = 7. Then F+C=10F + C = 10.

  • F=4, C=6F = 4,\ C = 6: but C = 6 is another leader's score, so Zooma would lead two parameters — forbidden.
  • F=5, C=5F = 5,\ C = 5: C = 5 has frequency 0. Impossible.
  • F=6, C=4F = 6,\ C = 4: F = 6 has frequency 0. Impossible.

No valid split, so Zooma is not the S = 7 holder.

Case 2 — Zooma holds F = 7. Then S+C=10S + C = 10, with S≤6S \le 6 (S = 7 belongs to another leader) and C≤4C \le 4 (C = 6 belongs to another leader).

  • S=6, C=4S = 6,\ C = 4: both frequencies are ≥1\ge 1. ✓
  • S=5, C=5S = 5,\ C = 5: C = 5 has frequency 0. ✗

So here Zooma's S=6S = 6.

Case 3 — Zooma holds C = 6. Then S+F=11S + F = 11, with S≤6S \le 6 and F≤5F \le 5.

  • S=6, F=5S = 6,\ F = 5: both frequencies are ≥1\ge 1. ✓
  • S=5, F=6S = 5,\ F = 6: F = 6 has frequency 0. ✗

So here too Zooma's S=6S = 6.

💡 Teacher tip: "Highest score in exactly one parameter" means each happy country is a column-leader in precisely one column — so the three leaders are forced by the data, and Zooma must be one of them.

In every valid case, Zooma's score in S is 6.

Answer: 6

Q31PuzzlesMCQ

Benga and Delma, two countries categorized as happy, are tied with the same total score. What is the maximum score they can have?

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Benga and Delma are two happy countries tied at the same total. We want the maximum value of that tie.

The frequency table

ScoreSFC
1021
2013
3324
4311
5230
6101
7110

Who are the three happy countries?

From Clue 3, the three happy countries are the three column-leaders: the S = 7 holder, the F = 7 holder, and the C = 6 holder. Zooma (total 17) is one of them, so Benga and Delma must be the other two leaders.

Bounding the tie

Take a concrete valid placement: Zooma is the F = 7 holder with (S,F,C)=(6,7,4)(S,F,C) = (6,7,4), total 17. Then Benga and Delma are the S = 7 holder and the C = 6 holder.

Look at the S = 7 holder's maximum possible total:

  • F≤5F \le 5 (F = 7 is already Zooma's).
  • C≤3C \le 3 (C = 4 is already Zooma's; C = 6 is the other leader's).
  • Maximum total =7+5+3=15= 7 + 5 + 3 = \mathbf{15}.

The C = 6 holder could in principle reach a higher total, but since Benga and Delma must be tied, their common value cannot exceed the smaller of the two ceilings — that is, 15.

Is a tie at 15 actually reachable?

Yes. For example:

  • S = 7 holder =(7,5,3)=15= (7, 5, 3) = 15
  • C = 6 holder =(5,4,6)=15= (5, 4, 6) = 15
  • Zooma =(6,7,4)=17= (6, 7, 4) = 17

One can verify the remaining five countries fill the rest of the frequency table consistently.

Why not 16?

To reach 16, the S = 7 holder would need F+C=9F + C = 9 with F≤5F \le 5 and C≤3C \le 3 (since C = 4 is Zooma's). The maximum is 5+3=85 + 3 = 8, giving only 15. Pushing higher would require the C = 4 slot that Zooma already occupies.

💡 Teacher tip: When two entities must be tied, the tie value is capped by whichever entity has the lower ceiling. Find the binding constraint first.

Answer: 15 (Choice B)

Q32PuzzlesMCQ

If Benga scores 16 and Delma scores 15, then what is the maximum number of countries with a score of 13?

Show solution

Correct answer: B

Given Benga = 16 and Delma = 15, we want the maximum number of countries with total score exactly 13.

Step 1 — Total of all scores across the 10 countries

From the frequency table, sum each parameter column (score × frequency):

ParameterComputationTotal
S3(3)+4(3)+5(2)+6(1)+7(1)=9+12+10+6+73(3)+4(3)+5(2)+6(1)+7(1) = 9+12+10+6+744
F1(2)+2(1)+3(2)+4(1)+5(3)+7(1)=2+2+6+4+15+71(2)+2(1)+3(2)+4(1)+5(3)+7(1) = 2+2+6+4+15+736
C1(1)+2(3)+3(4)+4(1)+6(1)=1+6+12+4+61(1)+2(3)+3(4)+4(1)+6(1) = 1+6+12+4+629

Grand total of all 10 countries' scores =44+36+29=109= 44 + 36 + 29 = \mathbf{109}.

Step 2 — Account for the known countries

  • Three happy countries: Zooma (17) + Benga (16) + Delma (15) =48= 48.
  • Amda and Calla: 7+7=147 + 7 = 14 (Clue 1, jointly the lowest).
  • Remaining five countries: 109−48−14=47109 - 48 - 14 = \mathbf{47}.

Step 3 — Bound the number of 13s

These five remaining countries are non-happy (the only happy ones are Zooma, Benga, Delma), so each totals at most 13. Also, since Amda and Calla are the unique lowest at 7, every other country totals at least 8.

Suppose kk of these five countries have total exactly 13. The remaining (5−k)(5 - k) countries each total at least 8, so:

47−13k≥8(5−k)47 - 13k \ge 8(5 - k) 47−13k≥40−8k47 - 13k \ge 40 - 8k 7≥5k7 \ge 5k k≤1.4k \le 1.4

Since kk is an integer, k≤1\boxed{k \le 1}.

Step 4 — Confirm k=1k = 1 is achievable

One neutral country at 13 and the other four at, say, 8, 9, 9, 8 gives 13+8+9+9+8=4713 + 8 + 9 + 9 + 8 = 47. ✓ All values lie in the valid 8–13 range, and the full frequency table can be matched with a concrete assignment.

💡 Teacher tip: When a question asks for a maximum count under a sum constraint, set up an inequality: the "special" countries consume a fixed amount, and the rest must each stay above a floor. Solve for the count.

Answer: 1 (Choice B)